Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 10:19
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Iure eveniet quod quae esse explicabo autem corrupti.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Why does it itch on my vulva, uterus, and sides of my vagina, but it doesn't itch inside the vagina?
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.